Verses 1-19: Why did the Lord reveal these things to Abraham? More important: why did he think it important to reveal them to us?

Of course this could be asked about any passage of scripture, but it was esp. bothering me with regard to this chapter as I sat in Sunday school today, and it seemed we were floundering to understand the significance of any of this.

Is Jenny (#11) onto something here that can be applied to the whole chapter? God is providing Abraham with an analogy of the structural integrity of the universe as a metaphor for the structural integrity of the human family, or at least the covenantal family that Abraham will be the father of?

Any comments in response will be much appreciated, this is one of those burning questions that’s really eating at me (and it’s related in so many ways to questions I have about the creation story and the temple…)!

I wonder if the two segments of the sentence could be related in terms of integrity. That is, the integrity of God—his utter lack of deception, misdirection, forgetfulness, etc. and his complete commitment to any task he decides to accomplish—is reflected in the integrity of the structure of the universe. The complete order running throughout the universe (if two things exist, they will exist in an ordered relationship to each other) provides us with a sense of structural integrity (every part will fit into the whole following this logic, even if the parts are infinite). Therefore, as a response to Jim’s formulation, the second half does reveal something about God’s character (his integrity), but it reveals that integrity in the structured, ordered terms presented in the universe/al description of the first half.

Doesn’t this also extend through the chapter? I think there is chiasmus through all of the verses 1-11.

On another interesting note, D&C 138:53 describes the prophets as “choice spirits.” In v55, these choice spirits “where also among the noble and great ones who were chosen in the beginning.” The “choice spirits” of v53 again seem to differ from the “noble and great ones” who they were among.

I think this might have something to do with our spiritual progression at the time of the council. In v22, Abraham saw intelligences, “and among those were many noble and great ones.” However, in v23, the noble and great ones are referred to as “souls.” Therefore, I think these might be two different groups at differing times in their spiritual progression.

However, v23 also appears to possibly introduce a third group. v23, “for he [God] stood [I think this is in addition to the "souls"] among those that were spirits.” Abraham was a spirit.

Souls and spirits are both “noble and great ones,” but spirits appear to be a step above the rest.

I forgot to put in my above post that I recognize God touches the stones of the Brother of Jared in Ether 3, but I am unsure if he physically touches them, or simply appears to touch them when they light up. Just wanted to point that out.

Maybe to put emphasis on the Atonement? Isa. 49: 15-16

“Can a woman forget her sucking child, that she should not have compassion on the son of her womb? yea, they may forget, yet will I not forget thee. Behold, I have graven thee upon the palms of my hands; thy walls are continually before me.”

The obvious difference between Moses and Abraham is that God touches physically touches the latter. In Abr. 3:12 God “put his hand upon {Abraham’s] eyes.” I am unsure of the usage of the word “hands” in this book, and this passage confuses me. Is it figurative or literal? We read in Ether 3:16 that God tells the Brother of Jared,” Behold, this body, which ye now behold, is the body of my spirit; and man have I created after the body of my spirit; and even as I appear unto thee to be in the spirit will I appear unto my people in the flesh.” Yet, God touches Abraham?

If the word hand is figurative here, rather than literal, because God is a spirit, then that makes Jim’s question regarding v11 extremely interesting. If hands=atonement, maybe the knowledge of the atonement allows Abraham to see the coming “here am I, send me” scene? However, that might be a stretch. I will have to think more on this.

“But, behold, I say unto you that before this great day shall come the sun shall be darkened, and the moon shall be turned into blood, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and there shall be greater signs in heaven above and in the earth beneath.”

We know one star had already fallen, Isa. 14:12 where Satan is the morning star. However, I am not sure if all three of these stars are related or not.

[Abraham . . . as narrator] And the Lord [Jesus/Jehovah] said: ["]Whom shall I send?["] [to be the first to experience the next estate] And one [Michael/Adam] answered like unto the Son of Man [Jesus, Son of Man or Son of God]: ["]Here am I, send me["]. And another [Lucifer] answered and said: ["]Here am I, send me["]. And the Lord [Jesus] said: ["]I will send the first.["]

I think it’s worth considering:

“Reading Abraham 3:22-28 through new eyes”
http://latterdayspence.blogspot.com/2009/12/reading-abraham-322-28-through-new-eyes.html

When the Father ‘speaks of things his hands made’ and ‘making things by his word” perhaps He was referring to creating by his Only Begotten, as in John 1:1-3 (“In the beginning was the Word….all things were made by him, and without him was not anything that was made”) and Isaiah 48:10 (“Mine hand also hath laid the foundation of the aearth, and my right hand hath spanned the heavens: when I call unto them, they stand up together”)? Is not His Only Begotten Son, his ‘right hand’ or on his ‘right hand’?